Matthew 3 records the story where Jesus is baptized by John the Baptist. It states that John would have declined the baptism stating 'I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?' Evidently he did not but was intent on saying that. But instead Jesus said 'Let it be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.'
My first thought here is the statement made by John internally to refuse Jesus. This is the acclaimed John the Baptist, this great man of God, who had received word from God directly and was able to apply it so well to the Pharisees and Sadducees who were coming for baptism. And yet, he didn't quite understand. Frankly, I don't either. I mean if baptism is needed because we've sinned (at that time Jesus had not atoned for us), then why in the world would Jesus need to be baptized? My thought here is that because he would be teaching God's word and had not yet revealed himself as the God Man, it would be one less thing for people to argue about in regards to whether or not to listen to his teaching.
Then I was reminded of the story later on when John the Baptist is in prison. He sends his disciples to ask Jesus if he is really the Messiah, the one he'd been waiting on. Now, John knew Jesus was his cousin, they'd already discussed this. He knew when he saw him that he was the Messiah. And still he had to ask again. Why? Because God was not revealing himself in the way that John the Baptist expected.
How often do we misunderstand the Bible? How often do we misunderstand how God is working in our lives?
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